a nurse manager is discussing electronic medical records with a newly licensed nurse. which of the following actions should the nurse take to maintain client confidentiality? (select all that apply.)

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Answer 1

To maintain client confidentiality when working with electronic medical records, the newly licensed nurse should take the following actions:

Use unique login credentials: Each nurse should have their own individual login credentials to access the electronic medical records system. This helps ensure accountability and prevents unauthorized access.Adhere to password security: Nurses should create strong passwords, change them regularly, and keep them confidential. Sharing passwords or using easily guessable passwords compromises client confidentiality.Log out after use: Always log out of the electronic medical records system when finished using it. This prevents unauthorized access to client information when the computer or device is unattended.Protect physical access: Ensure that computer workstations or devices with electronic medical records are physically secure. Prevent unauthorized individuals from viewing or accessing the information.Discuss patient information privately: When discussing patient information, do so in a private and secure area where unauthorized individuals cannot overhear or see the information. Respect client confidentiality during verbal conversations.Encrypt and secure devices: If using portable devices or laptops that store electronic medical records, ensure they are encrypted and secure. This prevents unauthorized access in case of loss or theft.

These actions help maintain client confidentiality and protect sensitive patient information when working with electronic medical records. Following proper security protocols and being mindful of privacy is essential for upholding patient rights and maintaining professional ethical standards.

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Related Questions

Which of the following amendments have been selectively incorporated to the states using the Fourteenth Amendment

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The portions of the bill of right has been selectively incorporated to the states using the fourteenth amendment.

What is Bill of right?

These comprises of the first ten amendments to the U.S constitution and comprises of essential rights and liberties.

They were incorporated using the fourteenth amendment in 1868 thereby making it the most appropriate choice.

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When an applicant for a nursing license receives a final conviction for first degree murder, the NPA mandates that the applicant

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When an applicant for a nursing license receives a final conviction for first degree murder, the NPA mandates that the applicant will not be eligible to apply for an initial nursing license until five years after being released from community supervision or parole.

A nurse practice act (NPA) was passed into law by all states and territories, and it creates a board of nursing (BON) with the power to create administrative rules or regulations to specify or explain the law. Rules and regulations must adhere to the NPA and are not permitted to stray from it. The NPA was created to control the profession and safeguard the populace from practitioners who pose a threat to the welfare, safety, and health of those living under its state board's purview. Conduct that gives rise to suspicions that a nurse's ability to practice is hampered by chemical dependency or drug or alcohol addiction is classified as NPA.

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In recent years, the role of ______, the study of the distribution of disease, impairment, and general health status across a population, has expanded to include tracking bioterrorism.

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In recent years, the role of epidemiology, the study of the distribution of disease, impairment, and general health status across a population, has expanded to include tracking bioterrorism.

What is epidemiology?

Epidemiology can simply be defined as the branch of medicine which deals with the incidence, distribution, and possible control of diseases and other factors relating to health.

So therefore, in recent years, the role of epidemiology, the study of the distribution of disease, impairment, and general health status across a population, has expanded to include tracking bioterrorism.

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Chronic alcohol abuse will not only cause an individual to develop liver damage, but may also lead to cerebellar damage. Damage to the cerebellum will cause the individual to:

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Damage to the cerebellum will cause the individual to appear clumsy and uncoordinated.

What happens if the cerebellum is damaged?

The coordination of voluntary motor action, balance and equilibrium, and muscle tone are all functions of the cerebellum. It is situated toward the rear of the brain, just above the brain stem. Compared to the frontal and temporal lobes and the brain stem, it is relatively trauma-resistant.

Slow and uncoordinated motions are the outcome of cerebellar damage. When walking, people with cerebellar abnormalities frequently sway and stumble.

A cerebellar injury can cause the following symptoms:

loss of coordination of motor movement (asynergia)inability to judge distance and when to stop (dysmetria)inability to perform rapid alternating movements (adiadochokinesia)movement tremors (intention tremor)staggering, wide-based walking (ataxic gait)tendency to fallweak muscles (hypotonia)slur (nystagmus)

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which method of anesthesia is likley to be used for a 45-year-old alcohol-intoxicatted man closed reduction and cast application of a fractured forearm

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The axillary block method of anesthesia is likely to be used for a 45-year-old alcohol-intoxicated man with closed reduction and cast application of a fractured forearm.

An axillary block is a term used for the axillary brachial plexus block. The terminal branches of the brachial plexus are rendered unconscious by the axillary block, a peripheral nerve block that is done in the axilla. Surgery on the forearm, wrist, hand, and fingers uses axillary blocks for anesthetic and/or analgesia.

The ventral rami of the upper thoracic and lower cervical nerve roots combine to produce the brachial plexus. The brachial plexus nerves pass via the neck, collarbone, and arm before entering the arm.

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The most common nutritional concern in adolescence is____ Group of answer choices a. ADHD b. early maturation c. late maturation d. obesity

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Obesity is the most common nutritional concern in adolescence because of the overeating.

What is the most common nutritional concern during adolescence?

The nutritional concern during adolescence include problems of overeating and consistently making poor food choices, resulting in obesity. Many adolescents develop problems with unhealthy and restrictive dieting without meeting the minimum nutritional requirements that are necessary for healthy growth and development of an adolescence.

So we can conclude that Obesity is the most common nutritional concern in adolescence because of the overeating.

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A group of occupational-related lung diseases characterized by inflammation, infection, and bronchitis, caused by inhaling substances in the workplace is called __________________.

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A group of occupational-related lung diseases characterized by inflammation, infection, and bronchitis, caused by inhaling substances in the workplace is called Occupational asthma.

Occupational asthma:

A specific form of asthma called occupational asthma is brought on by inhaled irritant exposure during work. Since occupational asthma frequently has a reversible course, avoiding the triggers may cause the symptoms to go away.

Inhaling compounds referred to as triggers might cause asthma symptoms in people with sensitive airways. Several industrial chemicals can cause asthma symptoms, which can result in occupational asthma. The most frequent triggers include chemicals, fungi, animal dander, wood dust, grain dust, or grain dust.

Symptoms of occupational asthma include wheezing, shortness of breath, runny nose, nasal congestion, eye discomfort, and tightness in the chest. When exposed to the irritant(s) at work, these symptoms may develop worse.

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Rapid assessment of mrs. bailey’s breathing reveals irregular, gasping breaths. you correctly identify this pattern of breathing as?

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You correctly identify this breathing pattern on agonal, Breathing patterns consist of tidal volume and respiratory rate in an individual. An average breathing pattern is 12 breaths per minute and 500 mL per breath. Eupnea is normal breathing at rest. There are types of altered breathing patterns that are symptoms of many diseases.

What is breathing pattern?

The normal adult, at rest, breathes comfortably 12 to 18 times per minute. Newborns, this value reaches 30 to 40 breaths per minute, that is, almost double that of an adult at rest and children can reach 25 to 30 breaths per minute.

With this information, we can conclude that Breathing rate is the number of breaths you take per minute.

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Regular exercise has been associated with improved stress management, which is attributed to its effect on

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Regular exercise has been associated with improved stress management, which is attributed to its effect on cortisol release and is usually produced by the adrenal glands which are found on top of the kidneys.

What is Exercise?

This is described as a physical activity which involves the movement of parts of the body and is responsible for the general fitness of individuals. This helps to build the muscles and improve the circulation of blood and nutrients around parts of the body.

When exercises are done, the adrenal glands are stimulated which leads to the release of cortisol and is referred to as a stress reliever.

It is also involved in the control of the body's general metabolism rate which is why it was chosen as the most appropriate choice in this scenario.

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Under general anesthesia, a provider excises one chalazion from each upper eyelid. What cptâ® and icd-10-cm codes are reported?

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Although chalazion surgery is not regarded as serious surgery, anaesthetic is used throughout the procedure. You might have a local anaesthetic that only affects the region around your eyes or a general anaesthetic that puts you to sleep for the surgery, depending on your health requirements, age, and medical history.

Whether a single or several chalazia are removed under these circumstances,  the codeCPT 67808 is utilised for excisions requiring general anaesthesia and/or hospitalisation. Similarly for icd-10-cm codes are as follows-

For chalazion right upper eyelid ICD-10-CM Code H00.11

For chalazion, left upper eyelid, ICD-10-CM code H00.14

Aftercare is involved post surgery, antibiotics are prescribed. Steroid ointment  is given in some cases

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The nurse is preparing to teach a client who is newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes about home management of the disease. Which action should the nurse take first

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The patient's interest in and capacity for managing their diabetes on their own should be evaluated by the nurse before lesson planning. The other nursing interventions may be necessary after examining the patient, but planning must be tailored to each patient.

What is nursing process?Assessment: The nursing procedure begins with the assessment phase. At this point, the nurse compiles and arranges patient-related information.Diagnosis: This is one of the most important steps in the nursing process. It is necessary to consider all of the patient's external circumstances while making a diagnosis, which can occasionally be challenging (environmental, socioeconomic, physiological, etc.).Planning: The third step in the nursing process is planning. It offers direction for nursing interventions.Implementation: The actions a nurse takes to implement their patient care plan, such as any treatments, procedures, or learning opportunities aimed to improve the patient's comfort and health, are known as nursing interventions.Evaluation: The nursing procedure ends with the evaluation phase. It takes place after the interventions to see if the goals were met. During the evaluation phase, the nurse will choose how to evaluate the effectiveness of the goals and interventions.

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Which stage(s) are most appropriate and effective for improving health and wellness, as well as promoting a healthy body weight for most weight-loss clients and those new to exercise

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A Final statement or concluding statement

Stages 1 & 2 are most appropriate and effective for improving health and wellness, as well as promoting a healthy body weight for most weight-loss clients and those new to exercise.

How stage training can improve cardiorespiratory endurance?

Overloading is required if the objective is to assist clients enhance their stamina and muscle endurance. The body must be subjected to a task that tests its current level of fitness. This increased exertion will result in exhaustion and, with correct recovery, will eventually result in cardiorespiratory improvements.

If the workloads are of sufficient size (i.e., somewhat more than the body's existing capabilities), the body must adapt in order to be ready for the next time such a demand is placed on the body.

With this in mind, it is clear to see that cardiorespiratory exercise is much more than running at a moderate speed for lengthy periods of time.

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After developing severe pain from muscle stiffness and cramps, the victim of a black widow spider bite will experience:

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After developing severe pain from muscle stiffness and cramps, the victim of a black widow spider bite will experience: flulike symptoms.

Black widow spiders usually  found in Mexico, the southern United States, and Canada. They reside in low-lying webs near swimming pools, in wood piles, garages, grills, and barbecues. Between April and October, the majority of bites happen in suburban and rural locations. When their webs are tampered with, these spiders often bite. Bites to infants and young children can be more dangerous than bites to adults.

After being bitten by a black widow spider, one may have painful swelling around the bite.   Additionally, individuals can get stomachaches, cramps, and muscle spasms. These symptoms may worsen, up to 12 hours after you have been bitten. It may take a few days or weeks before all the discomfort goes away.

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A patient has questions regarding a recently prescribed antitussive agent. Which response by the nurse is the best

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A patient has inquiries about a recent antitussive agent. The best response by the nurse is that it will reduce the frequency of your cough

Antitussives, commonly referred to as cough suppressants, are medications that reduce coughing. Although the precise mechanism of action is uncertain, antitussives are assumed to function by blocking the cough reflex arc in the brain stem's coordinating region.

The best medicine to try if you have a dry cough is one that contains an antitussive, like dextromethorphan or pholcodine. The best medicine to try if you have a chesty cough is one that contains an expectorant, like guaifenesin or ipecacuanha. taking this medication orally, with or without a meal, as recommended by your physician, typically every four hours

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The nurse is aware that the newborn's circulatory dynamics during transition can be positively affected by which action

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Early clamping(30-40seconds) of the umbilical cord changes circulatory dynamics during transition and is affected positively while late clamping affects it negatively.

What is Umbilical cord?

This refers to a cord which connects the baby to the mother's placenta and helps to supply nutrients and other vital substances such as oxygen to the fetus. This ensures the fetus grows and develops under the right type of environment.  It is usually clamped after birth and falls off after a while when healing is completed.

Early clamping of the cord will ensure that  systemic vascular resistance is increased while on the other hand, late clamping will lead to low cardiac output and the baby will be at risk of asphyxic insult.

This is therefore the reason why early clamping is recommended and will affect the circulatory dynamics positively.

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An elderly client with diabetes comes to the clinic in winter reporting numbness of the feet. After removing the client's shoes and socks, the nurse notes that the feet are ice cold to the touch and appear waxy and pale. What is the appropriate nursing action

Answers

Appropriate nursing action for diabetic feet is to Wash the client's lower legs in a warm water bath.

Throughout the body, damaged nerves can result from high blood sugar (glucose). The nerves in the legs and feet are most frequently damaged by diabetic neuropathy. Diabetic neuropathy symptoms can range from numbness to discomfort in the hands, feet, and legs, depending on which nerves are impacted.Diabetes and peripheral neuropathy are conditions that cause nerve damage. It causes numbness, loss of feeling, and occasionally discomfort in your hands, legs, or feet. It is the most frequent side effect of diabetes.Every day, wash your feet in warm water—not hot water. Don't let your feet soak. Apply moisturizer to the top and bottom of your dry feet, but avoid the space between your toes as this could cause an infection. Avoid walking barefoot.

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What is the usual number of posterior film sensor images taken in the parallel technique?

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Posterior film sensor images using the parallel technique for maxillary posterior films the film is placed because it will be placed in the mouth on the surface of one being radiographed ,opposite side of the surface.

If it is placed on the cotton wool before the film is placed for upper teeth and then film is placed for lower teeth.There are some purpose for using this technique that is  increased distance between the radiation sources and film to obtain a bundle of parallel rays.

It is 16 inches long receptor distance which is used with the paralleling technique. This is used to position an intraoral receptor in the mouth and maintain the receptor in position during exposure.

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Which statement would the nurse include in teaching about the psychodynamic theory of conversion disorder

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The emotions associated with traumatic events are transformed into physical symptoms." is the statement which will be included to teach psychodynamic theory of conversion disorder.

What is Psychodynamic theory of conversion disorder?

This states that the occurrence of some symptoms which aren't caused by organic diseases are usually as a result of psychological factors

Conditions such as traumatic events etc usually have an effect on the physical body.

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A client is admitted for a right below-knee amputation (BKA) as a result of poorly managed diabetes mellitus. Which complication is the client at most risk for after surgery

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The client is at risk of developing surgical site infection post the right below-knee amputation (BKA) as a result of poorly managed diabetes mellitus.

Diabetes is a type of disease that leads to a rise in blood glucose levels. Amputation in the lower extremity of the body is extremely common in an individual with unregulated diabetes. This is because diabetes may result in diabetic neuropathy or peripheral arterial disease (PAD). Narrowing of the arteries in the PAD causes the development of ulcers and infections in the lower limbs, which ultimately causes amputation. Diabetes mellitus reduces the wound healing power and therefore delays the surgical site to recovery. This makes the client prone to surgical site infections.

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When a nurse commits a crime outside of the workplace, the BON's concern relates to whether the nurse may

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When a nurse commits a crime outside of the workplace, the BON's concern relates to whether the nurse may perform the same act in the workplace.

Who is a Nurse?

This is referred to as healthcare professionals who are specialized in taking care of the sick and injured ones.

The concern is whether the nurses will act in such manner if in the workplace so as to ascertain ability to  provide safe care to patients.

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A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has mild preeclampsia and will be caring for herself athome during the last 2 months of pregnancy. This of the following statements by the client indicates anunderstanding of the teaching

Answers

I will alternate the arm I use to check my blood pressure.

Preeclampsia:

During pregnancy, preeclampsia, a dangerous blood pressure problem, can appear. Preeclampsia patients frequently have hypertension (high blood pressure) and excessive urine protein levels (proteinuria). Usually beginning after the 20th week of pregnancy.

Pre-eclampsia is assumed to develop when there is a problem with the placenta, the organ that connects the baby's blood supply to the mother's. However, the exact etiology of pre-eclampsia is unknown.

Preeclampsia signs and symptoms, in addition to elevated blood pressure, may include:

More protein in the urine (proteinuria) or other kidney-related symptoms.Decreased blood platelet levels (thrombocytopenia)Hepatic issues are indicated by elevated liver enzyme levels.A terrible headache.

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Which of the following techniques should you use when you are communicating with a patient who has autism? Exaggerate your lip movements. Speak normally and provide simple, one-step directions. Speak loudly into the patient’s ear. You and your partner should talk to the patient together

Answers

According to the research, the correct option is Speak normally and provide simple, one-step directions. It is a technique that you should use when you are communicating with a patient who has autism.

What is autism?

It encompasses a series of disorders that affect the communication skills, socialization and empathy of the person who usually presents the congenital impossibility to establish communication or develop an emotional bond with others.

Speak normally and provide simple, one-step directions, reduces lack of contact with the environment, promoting language and social interaction with a patient who has autism and also being a highly structured environment.

Therefore, we can conclude that according to the research, the correct option is Speak normally is a technique that you should use when you are communicating with a patient who has autism.

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The PACER Test measures cardiovascular fitness. The PACER Test measures cardiovascular fitness. True False

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The PACER test measures cardiovascular fitness is a true statement.

In 1982, Leger and Lambert developed a multistage shuttle run they called the Progressive Aerobic Cardiovascular Endurance Run (PACER). The PACER was created to assess aerobic capacity, which can be described as having endurance, performance, and fitness. The PACER's goal is to maintain a certain speed for as long as possible.

This test may be performed simultaneously to huge numbers of children for very little expense. In contrast to many other tests of endurance capacity, the test continues until maximal effort is reached.

The level of practice and motivation might affect the final score, and scoring can be subjective. Since the test is typically performed outside, the environment can have an impact on the outcomes.

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A client is prescribed tamoxifen, 20 mg by mouth twice per day for treatment of breast cancer. The client reports to the nurse that she has worsening bone pain. How should the nurse respond

Answers

The nurse should respond in a way that Acute worsening of bone pain commonly indicates that the drug will produce a good response.

Tamoxifen is a powerful hormone treatment used to treat breast cancer that has hormone receptors. It can significantly lower the incidence of invasive cancer and cancer recurrence. Tamoxifen is used by certain people to reduce their risk of breast cancer.

A known side effect of using tamoxifen is the increase in bone pain. But, it is believed that tamoxifen works if you see acute worsening in bone pain. It is just a part of the process and ultimately the drug will produce a good response.

Therefore, The nurse should respond in a way that Acute worsening of bone pain commonly indicates that the drug will produce a good response.

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Which of the following list in the correct order the events of acute inflammation after tissue injury

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Erythema, edema, heat, pain, altered function  list in the correct order the events of acute inflammation after tissue injury.

What is acute inflammation after tissue injury?

Inflammation refers to the initial physiological response to tissue damage, such as that caused by mechanical, thermal, electrical, irradiation, chemical, or infection.

An inflammation or an inflammatory reaction is one of the body's many intricate biological reactions. Chemical mediators and cellular responses work together to combat any infection or harm to the body's cells. Acute and chronic are the two categories.

At the location of an injury or infection, acute inflammation is a type of localized, transient inflammation. Following tissue damage, acute inflammation starts within seconds to minutes. It is distinguished by four essential characteristics (Latin phrases in brackets) Secondary to vasodilation and increased blood flow is redness (rubor). Heat (color) is a localized rise in temperature that is also brought on by a rise in blood flow.

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What fitness rating indicates that you have the level of fitness needed to live a full, healthy life

Answers

Answer:

Between 20 and 25

Explanation:

Your BMI is the percentage of fat in your body in relation to the lean muscle mass and is one of the best indicators of fitness levels in healthy individuals. If your BMI falls between 20 and 25, then you are healthy with appropriate fat and muscle mass.

Babies that are at a low birth weight are more likely to have health problems, while women will have difficulty delivering babies with high birth weight. Together this leads to ______ for babies of average birth weight.

Answers

Answer: ————— = Stabilizing selection

Explanation:

a client with midsternal pain presents to the emergency department. vital signs are stable. which form of nitroglycerin

Answers

Spray

Nitroglycerin, nurse anticipate to give, is spray.

What are nitroglycerines?

Nitrates are a class of drugs that includes nitroglycerin. It functions by widening the blood arteries, boosting the flow of blood and oxygen to the heart, and lightening the workload on the organ.

People with coronary artery disease who experience angina (chest pain) episodes can be treated with nitroglycerin spray (narrowing of the blood vessels that supply blood to the heart). The spray may also be applied right before engaging in activities that could result in angina episodes in order to stop the angina from happening. The drug nitroglycerin belongs to the vasodilators class of drugs. By allowing the blood arteries to relax, it makes the heart work less hard and so consumes less oxygen.

I understand the question you are looking for is this:

A client with midsternal pain presents to the emergency department. Vital signs are stable. Which form of nitroglycerin does the nurse anticipate giving initially?

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The nurse is assessing a newborn who appears healthy and at term. Which assessment finding of the feet does the nurse predict to observe to confirm the status of at-term birth

Answers

Creases on two-thirds of the foot will confirm the status of at-term birth.

What is the significance of the foot in a new-born?

The inspection of a newborn must include a thorough check of the feet. The newborn foot, which has between 26 and 28 bones, is complicated despite its relatively small size. Numerous malformations can be seen when both feet are simultaneously observed.

It is important to look closely at the skin for any unique folds or wrinkles that could result from different foot deviations. On one side of the foot, the skin may be abnormally loose and excessively skinfold, while other portions of the skin may be abnormally stiff, indicating additional tension on the skin.

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Choose MyPlate reminds Americans about maintaining balanced diets by using an illustration that features ______.

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MyPlate reminds Americans about maintaining balanced diets by using an illustration that features the 5 food groups.

What is MyPlate?MyPlate is a nutritional food guide, developed by the U.S. Department of Agriculture (USDA), to help Americans become more aware of what they eat and to assist them in making better food choices.MyPlate uses the place setting, which includes a plate and a glass, to illustrate how the five food groups should be distributed over the daily meals so individuals can get the proper daily intakes of nutrition.MyPlate is a transitional tool from the previous dietary guidelines and is designed to help people learn how to eat a healthy diet, live an active lifestyle, and maintain or gradually move in the direction of a healthy weight, which will reduce the risk of weight-related diseases.

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