Susan said, if I fertilize my geranium plants, they will blossom

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

I don't know what you're asking, but I will try my best.

If Susan fertilizes her geranium plants, it will help them blossom. If she over-fertilizes them though, they will die. But yes, in general, they will blossom if Susan fertilizes her geranium plants.


Related Questions

Five capacitors are connected across a potential difference Vab as shown below. Because of the materials used, any individual capacitor will break down if the potential across it exceeds 30.0 V. 15 uF 45 ?F Vab 5.0 uF 10.0 ?F 25 ?F We'd like to find the largest total voltage Vab that can be applied without damaging any of the capacitors. To do this, we can start by identifying the maximum charge allowed on each capacitor. So given that these capacitors are connected in series, what is the maximum charge that won't lead to breakdown? Submit Answer Tries 0/9 What is the equivalent capacitance of this system of capacitors? Submit Answer Tries 0/9 Finally, what is the maximum voltage that can be connected to this system of capacitors without any one of them breaking down?

Answers

Five capacitors are connected across a potential difference Vab. The maximum voltage that can be connected to the system without any one of the capacitors breaking down is approximately 18.2 V.

To find the maximum charge allowed on each capacitor, we can use the breakdown voltage and capacitance of each capacitor

Q = CV

Where Q is the maximum charge allowed, C is the capacitance, and V is the breakdown voltage.

For the 15 µF capacitor, the maximum charge is

Q1 = (15 µF)(30.0 V) = 450 µC

For the 45 µF capacitor, the maximum charge is

Q2 = (45 µF)(30.0 V) = 1350 µC

For the 5.0 µF capacitor, the maximum charge is

Q3 = (5.0 µF)(30.0 V) = 150 µC

For the 10.0 µF capacitor, the maximum charge is

Q4 = (10.0 µF)(30.0 V) = 300 µC

For the 25 µF capacitor, the maximum charge is

Q5 = (25 µF)(30.0 V) = 750 µC

The maximum charge that won't lead to breakdown is the minimum of these values, which is 150 µC.

To find the equivalent capacitance of the system, we can use the formula for capacitors in series

1/Ceq = 1/C1 + 1/C2 + 1/C3 + 1/C4 + 1/C5

Substituting in the given values, we get

1/Ceq = 1/15 µF + 1/45 µF + 1/5.0 µF + 1/10.0 µF + 1/25 µF

We can evaluate this expression to get

1/Ceq ≈ 0.121

Therefore, the equivalent capacitance is

Ceq = 8.26 µF

To find the maximum voltage that can be connected to the system without any one of the capacitors breaking down, we can use the formula

V = Q/Ceq

Substituting in the maximum charge allowed (150 µC) and the equivalent capacitance (8.26 µF), we get

V = (150 µC)/(8.26 µF) ≈ 18.2 V

Therefore, the maximum voltage that can be connected to the system without any one of the capacitors breaking down is approximately 18.2 V.

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A gazelle is running at 9.09 m/s. he hears a lion and accelerates at 3.80 m/s/s. 2.16 seconds after hearing the lion, how far has he travelled?

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A gazelle is running at 9.09 m/s. he hears a lion and accelerates at 3.80 m/s²; the gazelle has traveled approximately 25.14 meters after 2.16 seconds since hearing the lion.

To find the total distance traveled by the gazelle, we'll use the formula d = v0t + 0.5at^2, where d is the distance, v0 is the initial velocity, t is the time, and a is the acceleration. Given the initial velocity of 9.09 m/s, acceleration of 3.80 m/s², and time of 2.16 seconds:
1. Calculate the distance covered during the initial velocity: d1 = v0 * t = 9.09 m/s * 2.16 s = 19.6344 m
2. Calculate the distance covered during acceleration: d2 = 0.5 * a * t^2 = 0.5 * 3.80 m/s² * (2.16 s)^2 = 5.50896 m
3. Add the distances to find the total distance: d = d1 + d2 = 19.6344 m + 5.50896 m ≈ 25.14 m
The gazelle has traveled approximately 25.14 meters after 2.16 seconds since hearing the lion.

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.For the beam and loading shown, consider section n - n and determine the shearing stress at
(a) Point a,
(b) Point b.

Answers

For the beam and loading shown we need to use the formula:

Shearing stress = VQ/Ib where V is the shear force at the section, Q is the first moment of area of the section about the neutral axis, I is the second moment of area of the section about the neutral axis, and b is the width of the section. (a) At point a, the shear force is equal to the magnitude of the point load P, which is 6 kN.

The first moment of area of the section about the neutral axis can be found by considering the areas above and below the neutral axis separately:

Q = (100 mm × 10 mm × 5 mm) + (60 mm × 10 mm × 2.5 mm) = 5,500 mm^3 The second moment of area of the section about the neutral axis can be found using the formula for a rectangular section: I = (1/12) × (100 mm × 10 mm^3) + 10 mm × (100 mm/2)^2 + (1/12) × (60 mm × 10 mm^3) + 10 mm × (60 mm/2)^2 = 600,000 mm^4 The width of the section is 10 mm. Substituting these values into the formula, we get: Shearing stress at point a = (6 kN × 5,500 mm^3)/(600,000 mm^4 × 10 mm) = 0.275 MPa Therefore, the shearing stress at point a is 0.275 MPa. (b) At point b, the shear force is equal to the sum of the point load P and the distributed load q, which is (6 kN + 3 kN/m × 2 m) = 12 kN. The first moment of area of the section about the neutral axis can be found by considering the areas above and below the neutral axis separately: Q = (100 mm × 10 mm × 2.5 mm) + (60 mm × 10 mm × 5 mm) = 4,000 mm^3 The second moment of area of the section about the neutral axis and the width of the section are the same as for part (a), so we can reuse those values. Substituting these values into the formula, we get: Shearing stress at point b = (12 kN × 4,000 mm^3)/(600,000 mm^4 × 10 mm) = 0.8 MPa Therefore, the shearing stress at point b is 0.8 MPa.

About Beam

Beam in science is a term used to describe a group of particles or waves moving in the same direction. The beam can be light, electrons, neutrons, protons, or any other type of particle or wave. Beams are usually formed using special tools such as lasers, particle accelerators, or nuclear reactors. Beam has a wide range of applications in physics, chemistry, biology, medicine, engineering and industry.

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Bowman's capsule and the glomerulus make up the _____.
(a) renal pyramid
(b) loop of Henle
(c) renal corpuscle
(d) renal papilla
(e) collecting tubule system.

Answers

Bowman's capsule and the glomerulus make up the renal corpuscle. The correct option is c.

The renal corpuscle is a component of the nephron, which is the functional unit of the kidney. It is responsible for filtering blood and removing waste products from the body. The glomerulus is a small network of blood vessels that is responsible for filtering blood. It consists of tiny blood vessels called capillaries, which are surrounded by the Bowman's capsule.

The Bowman's capsule is a cup-shaped structure that surrounds the glomerulus and collects the filtrate that is produced by the glomerulus.

Together, the Bowman's capsule and the glomerulus form the first stage of urine production, which is called filtration. During this process, blood is filtered and waste products are removed from the blood and collected in the Bowman's capsule. This filtrate then moves through the rest of the nephron, where additional substances are reabsorbed and secreted, ultimately producing urine. The renal corpuscle is an essential component of the kidney's ability to maintain homeostasis and regulate fluid and electrolyte balance in the body.

Thus, the correct option is c.

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what capacitance, in μf , has its potential difference increasing at 1.5×106 v/s when the displacement current in the capacitor is 1.2 a ?

Answers

The capacitance (C) is determined to be 0.8 microfarads (μF) when the displacement current [tex]I_d[/tex] is 1.2 A and the rate of change of potential difference [tex]{\frac{dV}{dt}}[/tex] is 1.5 × 10⁶ V/s.

To determine the capacitance (C) in microfarads (μF), we can use the formula:

[tex]C = \frac{I_d}{\frac{dV}{dt}}[/tex]

where [tex]I_d[/tex] is the displacement current in amperes (A), and [tex]\frac{dV}{dt}[/tex] is the rate of change of potential difference in volts per second (V/s).

Given:

Displacement current [tex]I_d[/tex] = 1.2 A

Rate of change of potential difference [tex]\frac{dV}{dt}[/tex] = 1.5 × 10⁶ V/s

Substituting these values into the formula, we can calculate the capacitance:

C = (1.2 A) / (1.5 × 10⁶ V/s)

Simplifying this expression yields:

C = 0.8 × 10⁻⁶ F

Therefore, the capacitance is 0.8 microfarads (μF) when the potential difference is increasing at a rate of 1.5 × 10⁶ V/s and the displacement current in the capacitor is 1.2 A.

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What is dark matter made of, and how is it possible?

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

it is made up of other, more exotic particles like axions or WIMPS (Weakly Interacting Massive Particles).

Which of the following are odd-electron species? Select all that apply.Multiple select question.a. ClOb. ClO2-c. N2Od. NO2

Answers

b. ClO2- and NO2 are odd-electron species because they have an odd number of valence electrons.

Odd-electron species are molecules or ions with an odd number of valence electrons.

To determine if a species is odd-electron, we need to count the total number of valence electrons and see if it is an odd number.

For example, ClO has 18 valence electrons which is an even number, so it is not an odd-electron species.

Here is the electron count for each option:
a. ClO: 7 + 6 + 1 = 14 valence electrons (even)
b. ClO2-: 7 + 6 + 6 + 1 = 20 valence electrons (odd)
c. N2O: 5 + 5 + 6 = 16 valence electrons (even)
d. NO2: 5 + 6 + 6 = 17 valence electrons (odd)
Therefore, the odd-electron species are ClO2- and NO2.


Summary: ClO2- and NO2 are odd-electron species because they have an odd number of valence electrons.

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the resistance of the loop is 0.20. is the magnetic field strength increasing or decreasing?

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Without additional information, it is not possible to determine whether the magnetic field strength is increasing or decreasing based solely on the given information about the resistance of the loop.

Without additional information, it is not possible to determine whether the magnetic field strength is increasing or decreasing based solely on the given information about the resistance of the loop. Based on the provided information, it is not possible to determine if the magnetic field strength is increasing or decreasing. The resistance of the loop being 0.20 does not give enough information about the behavior of the magnetic field. If more details are provided about the loop and the magnetic field.

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which best compares the gravitational force and the strong force? both are attractive and repulsive. both are attractive only. both are weaker than the electromagnetic force. both are stronger than the electromagnetic force.

Answers

Answer & Explanation:

The correct answer is: both are stronger than the electromagnetic force.

Gravitational force is the force of attraction between any two objects with mass. It is the weakest of the four fundamental forces of nature (gravity, electromagnetism, strong force, weak force), and it is always attractive.

The strong force, also known as the strong nuclear force, is one of the four fundamental forces of nature and is responsible for holding together the nucleus of an atom. The strong force is much stronger than the electromagnetic force, but it has a very short range and is only effective over distances of about 10^-15 meters. The strong force is also both attractive and repulsive, depending on the distance between the particles involved.

Therefore, the only answer choice that accurately describes both forces is that they are stronger than the electromagnetic force.

he standard free energy change for the conversion of glucose to glucose-6- phosphate by hexokinase is go’ = -16.6 kj/mol (t = 37 oc). what is the equilibrium constant for the hexokinase reaction?

Answers

The equilibrium constant for the hexokinase reaction is approximately 7.042.

The relationship between standard free energy change (ΔG°), equilibrium constant (K) and the standard free energy change per mole of reaction (ΔG°/mol) is given by the following equation:

ΔG° = -RT lnK

where R is the gas constant (8.314 J/mol·K), T is the temperature in Kelvin, and ln is the natural logarithm.

Given ΔG° = -16.6 kJ/mol and T = 37°C = 310 K, we can solve for K:

ΔG° = -RT lnK

-16.6 kJ/mol = -(8.314 J/mol·K)(310 K) lnK

lnK = 1.951

K = e^(1.951)

K ≈ 7.042

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The equilibrium constant for the hexokinase reaction is approximately 2.46 x [tex]10^7[/tex].

The equilibrium constant, denoted as K, can be calculated from the standard free energy change using the following equation:

ΔG° = -RT ln(K)

where R is the gas constant and T is the temperature in Kelvin. At 37°C, which is 310 K, we have:

ΔG° = -16.6 kJ/mol

R = 8.314 J/(mol*K)

Converting the units of ΔG° to joules, we have:

ΔG° = -16,600 J/mol

Substituting the values into the equation and solving for K, we get:

K = [tex]e^{(-ΔG°/RT)[/tex] = [tex]e^{(-16600 J/mol / (8.314 J/(mol*K) * 310 K))[/tex]≈ 2.46 x [tex]10^7[/tex].

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The objective lens of a large telescope has a focal length of 12.6 m. If its eyepiece has a focal length of 3.0 cm, what is the magnitude of its magnification?
A : 4.2
B : 129
C : cannot be calculated without knowing the length of the telescope
D : 12.9
E : 420

Answers

The magnitude of the magnification is 420 (option e).

To calculate the magnification of a telescope, we use the formula:

Magnification = (Focal Length of Objective Lens) / (Focal Length of Eyepiece)

Given that the focal length of the objective lens is 12.6 m (or 1260 cm) and the focal length of the eyepiece is 3.0 cm, we can substitute these values into the formula:

Magnification = 1260 cm / 3.0 cm = 420

Therefore, the magnitude of the magnification is 420. Hence, the correct answer is (E) 420.

The term "magnitude" is used by physicists to refer to the "distance or quantity" of something. It reflects the direction and/or magnitude of motion in the context of motion.

It's an excellent technique to emphasise the magnitude or scope of anything. Magnitude is a physics word that can refer to either distance or quantity.

We can build a link between a moving object's size and velocity and its total magnitude. Magnitude relates to the size of something or the amount of money available. Magnitude may be used for a multitude of things.

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To find the magnitude of the magnification of the telescope, we can use the formula: magnification = - (focal length of objective lens) / (focal length of eyepiece) Substituting the values given in the question, we get: magnification = - (12.6 m) / (0.03 m) = - 420

Since magnification is defined as the ratio of the image size to the object size, the negative sign simply indicates that the image is inverted. Therefore, the magnitude of the magnification is simply the absolute value of the calculated value, which is 420. Therefore, the answer is E) 420. The magnification of a telescope can be calculated using the formula: Magnification = focal length of the objective lens / focal length of the eyepiece. In this case, the focal length of the objective lens is 12.6 m (or 1260 cm) and the focal length of the eyepiece is 3.0 cm. To find the magnification, simply divide the focal length of the objective lens by the focal length of the eyepiece: Magnification = 1260 cm / 3.0 cm = 420. So, the magnitude of the magnification for this telescope is 420.

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If you put a dish of water in a vacuum jar and decrease the pressure inside the jar by a vacuum pump, water
A. boils and freezes
B. disappears
C. remains intact
D. sublimates

Answers

If you put a dish of water in a vacuum jar and decrease the pressure inside the jar by a vacuum pump, the water will remain intact.

When the pressure inside the jar decreases, the boiling point of water decreases as well. However, the pressure in the dish of water remains constant, and it is not low enough to allow the water to boil.  As the pressure decreases, the boiling point of water lowers, causing it to boil at room temperature. Similarly, the pressure is not low enough for the water to freeze or sublimate, so it remains liquid. This is because the vacuum pump decreases the jar's pressure, not the water itself. Therefore, the water molecules do not have enough energy to change their state and remain in their current form.

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A hollow cylindrical copper pipe is 1.40M long and has an outside diameter of 3.50 cm and an inside diameter of 2.20cm . How much does it weigh? w=?N

Answers

The weight of the copper pipe is approximately 390.76 N. To find the weight of the copper pipe, we first need to calculate its volume. The formula for the volume of a hollow cylinder is: V = πh(R² - r²)

Where V is the volume, h is the height of the cylinder (which in this case is 1.40 m), R is the radius of the outer circle (which is half of the outside diameter, or 1.75 cm), and r is the radius of the inner circle (which is half of the inside diameter, or 1.10 cm).

Substituting the values we have:

V = π(1.40 m)(1.75 cm)² - (1.10 cm)²
V = 0.004432 m³

Next, we need to find the density of copper. According to Engineering Toolbox, the density of copper is 8,960 kg/m³.

Now we can use the formula for weight:

w = m*g

Where w is the weight, m is the mass, and g is the acceleration due to gravity, which is approximately 9.81 m/s².

To find the mass, we can use the formula:

m = density * volume

Substituting the values we have:

m = 8,960 kg/m³ * 0.004432 m³
m = 39.81 kg

Finally, we can calculate the weight:

w = 39.81 kg * 9.81 m/s²
w = 390.76 N

Therefore, the weight of the copper pipe is approximately 390.76 N.

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(d) estimate the time t t at which the cars are again side by side. (round your answer to one decimal place.)

Answers

To estimate the time at which the cars are again side by side, we need to find the time it takes for Car A to travel one complete lap more than Car B.

We know that Car A travels one lap in 100 seconds, while Car B travels one lap in 120 seconds. Let's call the time it takes for the cars to be side by side again "t". After t seconds, Car A will have completed t/100 laps, while Car B will have completed t/120 laps. For the cars to be side by side again, Car A must have completed one more lap than Car B.

So we need to solve the equation:

t/100 = t/120 + 1

Multiplying both sides by 12000 (the least common multiple of 100 and 120) gives:

120t = 100t + 12000

Simplifying this equation gives:

20t = 12000

t = 600 seconds

Therefore, the cars will be side by side again after 600 seconds, or 10 minutes.

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Calculate the kinetic energy in j of an electron moving at 6.00 x 10^6.

Answers

The kinetic energy of the electron moving at 6.00 × 10^6 m/s is approximately 1.6347221 × 10^(-18) joules (J).

To calculate the kinetic energy of an electron moving at a given velocity, we can use the formula for kinetic energy:

KE = (1/2) * m * v^2

where:

KE is the kinetic energy,

m is the mass of the electron, and

v is the velocity of the electron.

The mass of an electron (m) is approximately 9.10938356 × 10^(-31) kilograms.

Given the velocity (v) as 6.00 × 10^6 meters per second, we can now calculate the kinetic energy:

KE = (1/2) * (9.10938356 × 10^(-31) kg) * (6.00 × 10^6 m/s)^2

KE = (1/2) * (9.10938356 × 10^(-31) kg) * (3.6 × 10^13 m^2/s^2)

KE ≈ 1.6347221 × 10^(-18) joules (J)

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An object's angular momentum changes by 10 kg m^2/s in 2 sec. what magnitude average torque acted on the object?

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An object's angular momentum changes by 10 kg m^2/s in 2 sec; the average torque acting on the object is 5 Nm.

Angular momentum is the product of moment of inertia and angular velocity, represented by L= Iω.

When the angular momentum changes by ΔL in time t, the average torque acting on the object is given by τ= ΔL/Δt. Here, ΔL= 10 kg m^2/s and Δt= 2 s.  

Substituting the values in the formula, we get τ= ΔL/Δt= 10 kg m^2/s ÷ 2 s= 5 Nm.

Therefore, the average torque acting on the object is 5 Nm. It is important to note that torque is the measure of how much a force acting on an object causes it to rotate, and it depends on both the magnitude and direction of the force.

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problem 4 (15 points) consider again the mixer of hw5 - problem 4 and calculate the rate of entropy generation in w/k across the mixer.

Answers

The rate of entropy generation across the mixer is 1,052.2 W/K.

To calculate the rate of entropy generation in W/K across the mixer, we need to determine the rate of heat transfer and the temperature difference across the mixer.

From the problem statement, we know that the fluid enters the mixer at a temperature of 20°C and a velocity of 2 m/s. The fluid leaving the mixer has a temperature of 30°C and a velocity of 4 m/s. We are also given the dimensions of the mixer as 0.05 m x 0.05 m x 0.1 m.

To calculate the rate of heat transfer, we can use the equation:

Q = m * Cp * ΔT

where Q is the rate of heat transfer, m is the mass flow rate, Cp is the specific heat capacity of the fluid, and ΔT is the temperature difference across the mixer.

We can assume that the density of the fluid is constant and calculate the mass flow rate using:

m = ρ * A * V

where ρ is the density of the fluid, A is the cross-sectional area of the mixer, and V is the velocity of the fluid.

Using the given values, we can calculate:

[tex]A = 0.05 m * 0.05 m = 0.0025 m^2[/tex]

V1 = 2 m/s

V2 = 4 m/s

The average velocity is given by:

Vavg = (V1 + V2) / 2 = (2 m/s + 4 m/s) / 2 = 3 m/s

The density of water at 20°C is 998.2 [tex]kg/m^3[/tex], so:

[tex]m = 998.2 kg/m^3 * 0.0025 m^2 * 3 m/s = 7.48 kg/s[/tex]

The specific heat capacity of water is 4,186 J/kg-K, so:

Cp = 4,186 J/kg-K

The temperature difference across the mixer is ΔT = 30°C - 20°C = 10°C.

Therefore, the rate of heat transfer is:

Q = 7.48 kg/s * 4,186 J/kg-K * 10°C = 313,838.8 J/s

To calculate the rate of entropy generation, we can use the equation:

σ = Q / T

where σ is the rate of entropy generation, Q is the rate of heat transfer, and T is the temperature at which the heat transfer occurs.

Since the temperature difference across the mixer is 10°C, we can assume that the heat transfer occurs at an average temperature of (20°C + 30°C) / 2 = 25°C.

Therefore, the rate of entropy generation is:

σ = 313,838.8 J/s / 298.15 K = 1,052.2 W/K

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An engineer entered into a written contract with an owner to serve in the essential position of on-site supervisor for construction of an office building. The day after signing the contract, the engineer was injured while bicycling and was rendered physically incapable of performing as the on-site supervisor. The engineer offered to serve as an off-site consultant for the same pay as originally agreed to by the parties.


Is the owner likely to prevail in an action against the engineer for damages resulting from his failure to perform under the contract?

Answers

The owner is likely to prevail in an action against the engineer for damages resulting from his failure to perform under the contract due to his physical incapacity caused by a bicycling injury.

In general, the principle of contract law is that parties are expected to fulfill their contractual obligations. However, there are certain circumstances where performance may be excused or modified. In this case, the engineer's physical incapacity resulting from the bicycling injury prevents him from serving as the on-site supervisor as agreed upon in the contract.

While the engineer offered to serve as an off-site consultant for the same pay, this may not be sufficient to discharge his obligations under the original contract. The essential position of on-site supervisor requires physical presence and direct supervision, which the engineer is unable to provide due to his injury. If the contract explicitly specifies the engineer's role as the on-site supervisor, the owner may have a strong argument that the engineer's failure to perform constitutes a breach of contract.

However, the outcome may also depend on the specific terms of the contract and any provisions related to unforeseen circumstances or force majeure events. If the contract includes provisions for situations where the engineer becomes physically incapable of performing his duties, or if there is a provision allowing for the assignment or substitution of the engineer's role, it could potentially protect the engineer from liability. Ultimately, the determination of whether the owner will prevail in an action against the engineer would require a careful examination of the contract terms and the applicable laws in the jurisdiction where the contract was formed.

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flywheel of radus 25.0 cm is rotating at 655rpm. Find its angular displacement (in rad) in 3.00 min. a) 12,321rad b) 1,052 rad. c) 2.058rad d) 15,375ran

Answers

The angular displacement (in rad) in 3.00 min. a) 12,321rad

To find the angular displacement of the flywheel, we can use the formula:

Angular Displacement = (Angular Velocity) × (Time)

Given:

Radius of the flywheel = 25.0 cm = 0.25 m

Angular velocity = 655 rpm

Time = 3.00 min = 3.00 × 60 = 180 seconds

First, let's convert the angular velocity from rpm to radians per second:

1 revolution = 2π radians

1 minute = 60 seconds

Angular velocity = (655 rpm) × (2π radians/1 revolution) × (1 minute/60 seconds)

= (655 × 2π) / 60 radians/second

≈ 68.60 radians/second

Now, we can calculate the angular displacement:

Angular Displacement = (Angular Velocity) × (Time)

= (68.60 radians/second) × (180 seconds)

= 12,348 radians

Therefore, the angular displacement of the flywheel in 3.00 minutes is approximately 12,348 radians.

So the correct option is:

a) 12,321 rad

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14. why might peck drilling be used instead of standard drilling with a 0.25"" diameter hole which is 3 inches deep on a aluminum part?

Answers

Peck drilling might be used instead of standard drilling with a 0.25" diameter hole which is 3 inches deep on an aluminum part to prevent chip buildup and breakage of the drill bit, especially when drilling deep holes.

Peck drilling is a drilling technique that involves drilling a hole incrementally, lifting the drill bit out of the hole periodically to break up the chips and clear the hole. This technique is especially useful when drilling deep holes or when drilling materials that tend to produce long, stringy chips that can clog the drill bit and cause it to break.

In the case of a 0.25" diameter hole that is 3 inches deep on an aluminum part, standard drilling may cause chip buildup, which can increase the friction between the drill bit and the workpiece, leading to heat buildup and potential breakage of the drill bit. Peck drilling, on the other hand, allows for more efficient chip evacuation and reduces the risk of drill bit breakage.

For example, a peck drilling cycle might involve drilling 0.5 inches into the workpiece, then lifting the drill bit out of the hole to break up the chips and clear the hole, before drilling another 0.5 inches into the workpiece, and repeating the process until the full depth of the hole is reached.

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Consider three identical metal spheres, a, b, and c. sphere a carries a charge of 5q. sphere b carries a charge of -q. sphere c carries no net charge. spheres a and b are touched together and then separated. sphere c is then touched to sphere a and separated from it. lastly, sphere c is touched to sphere b and separated from it.

required:
a. how much charge ends up on sphere c?
b. what is the total charge on the three spheres before they are allowed to touch each other?

Answers

a. Sphere c ends up with a charge of -3q.

b. The total charge on the three spheres before they are allowed to touch each other is 5q - q = 4q.

a. When spheres a and b are touched together and then separated, charge is transferred between them until they reach equilibrium. Since sphere a has a charge of 5q and sphere b has a charge of -q, the total charge transferred is 5q - (-q) = 6q. This charge is shared equally between the two spheres, so sphere a ends up with a charge of 5q - 3q = 2q, and sphere b ends up with a charge of -q + 3q = 2q.

When sphere c is touched to sphere a and separated, they share charge. Sphere a has a charge of 2q, and sphere c has no net charge initially. The charge is shared equally, so both spheres end up with a charge of q.

Similarly, when sphere c is touched to sphere b and separated, they also share charge. Sphere b has a charge of 2q, and sphere c has a charge of q. The charge is shared equally, so both spheres end up with a charge of (2q + q) / 2 = 3q/2.

Therefore, sphere c ends up with a charge of -3q (opposite sign due to excess electrons) and the total charge on the three spheres before they are allowed to touch each other is 5q - q = 4q.

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A photon of initial energy 0.1 MeV undergoes Compton scattering at an angle of 60°. Find (a) the energy of the scattered photon, (b) the recoil kinetic energy of the electron, and (c) the recoil angle of the electron.

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The energy of the scattered photon is E₁ = E₀ - ΔE = 0.1 MeV - 0.042 MeV = 0.058 MeV. The recoil kinetic energy of the electron is given by: K = (0.042 MeV)/(1 + (0.1 MeV/(0.511 MeV/c²))) = 0.013 MeV. The recoil angle of the electron is φ = cos⁻¹(0.707) = 45°.

The energy of the scattered photon can be calculated using the formula: ΔE = E₀ - E₁ = E₀ * [1 - cos(θ)] where E₀ is the initial energy of the photon, E₁ is the energy of the scattered photon, and θ is the angle of scattering. Substituting the given values, we get ΔE = 0.1 MeV * [1 - cos(60°)] = 0.042 MeV.

The recoil kinetic energy of the electron can be calculated using the formula: K = (ΔE)/(1 + (E₀/m₀c²)), where K is the recoil kinetic energy of the electron, ΔE is the change in energy of the photon, E₀ is the initial energy of the photon, m₀ is the rest mass of the electron, and c is the speed of light. Substituting the given values, we get K = (0.042 MeV)/(1 + (0.1 MeV/(0.511 MeV/c²))) = 0.013 MeV.

The recoil angle of the electron can be calculated using the formula: cos(φ) = [1 + (E₀/m₀c²)]/[(E₀/m₀c²) * (1 - cos(θ)) + 1], where φ is the angle of recoil of the electron. Substituting the given values, we get cos(φ) = [1 + (0.1 MeV/(0.511 MeV/c²))]/[(0.1 MeV/(0.511 MeV/c²)) * (1 - cos(60°)) + 1] = 0.707.

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the disk of a spiral galaxy supports itself against its own gravity, which would otherwise make it collapse to the galaxy center, by

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The disk of a spiral galaxy supports itself against its own gravity through the centrifugal force generated by the rotation of its stars.

How does the rotation of stars in a spiral galaxy's disk counteract gravitational collapse?

The rotation of stars in a spiral galaxy's disk generates a centrifugal force that acts in opposition to the inward force of gravity. This centrifugal force creates a balance, preventing the collapse of the disk toward the galaxy's center.

In a spiral galaxy, such as our Milky Way, the disk consists of billions of stars, gas, and dust arranged in a flattened, rotating structure. The gravitational force between these objects tends to pull them inward. However, the rotation of the disk introduces a counteracting force—the centrifugal force.

As the stars and other matter in the disk orbit around the galactic center, they experience an outward force due to their angular momentum.

The combination of gravity and centrifugal force leads to a stable equilibrium where the inward gravitational force is balanced by the outward centrifugal force.

This equilibrium allows the spiral galaxy's disk to maintain its structure over long periods of time.

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design an analog computer to simulate d2 ____vo dt2 2___ dvo dt vo = 10 sin 2t

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An analog computer can be designed using operational amplifiers to simulate the second-order differential equation d2(vo)/dt2 + 2(dvo/dt) + vo = 10 sin(2t). The circuit would include two integrators, two summers, and a sinusoidal signal generator.

The first integrator would integrate the input sinusoidal signal to obtain the velocity signal, and the second integrator would integrate the velocity signal to obtain the position signal. The two summers would sum the input signal and the feedback signal to generate the error signal and sum the position signal and the damping signal to obtain the velocity signal. The output of the second integrator would be the simulated response of the second-order differential equation.

Analog computers were popular in the mid-twentieth century for solving differential equations, but they have largely been replaced by digital computers. Analog computers offer advantages in terms of speed, accuracy, and noise immunity, but they also have drawbacks in terms of complexity, maintenance, and flexibility.

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why can we not see the tidal disruption of a star by a black hole with masses greater than about 108 solar masses?

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We cannot see the tidal disruption of a star by a black hole with masses greater than about 10^8 solar masses because of the phenomenon known as the event horizon.

The event horizon is the boundary around a black hole beyond which nothing, including light, can escape its gravitational pull. It is determined by the mass of the black hole, with larger black holes having larger event horizons.

When a star gets too close to a black hole, the tidal forces exerted by the black hole's gravity can stretch and deform the star. This process is known as tidal disruption. As the star gets closer to the black hole, the gravitational forces acting on the star's different parts become stronger, causing the star to experience tidal forces that can tear it apart.

In the case of black holes with masses greater than about 10^8 solar masses, their event horizons are extremely large. As a result, the tidal forces acting on a star approaching such a massive black hole are distributed over a larger area, reducing the strength of the tidal forces near the event horizon.

Because the tidal forces are weaker near the event horizon of a massive black hole, the disruption and stretching of the star are not as pronounced as they would be with a smaller black hole. The star is more likely to cross the event horizon without being torn apart completely, and once it crosses the event horizon, it becomes hidden from our view. This means that the direct observation of the tidal disruption process becomes impossible.

Therefore, the limited visibility of the tidal disruption of a star by a black hole with masses greater than about 10^8 solar masses is primarily due to the size of the black hole's event horizon. The larger event horizon reduces the strength of tidal forces near the black hole, allowing the star to potentially pass through the event horizon intact and preventing us from directly observing the disruptive process.

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what percentage of the sun's total mass is lost each year as a result of fusion converting mass into energy?

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The percentage of the Sun's total mass lost each year as a result of fusion converting mass into energy is approximately 4.26 x 10⁻⁹%.

Find the percentage of the sun's total mass?

The process of nuclear fusion in the Sun's core converts a small fraction of its mass into energy according to Einstein's mass-energy equivalence equation, E = mc².

The total energy radiated by the Sun each year is about 3.8 x 10²⁶ joules.

To calculate the mass lost, we divide this energy by the speed of light squared (c²) to obtain the equivalent mass:

Δm = E / c²

Using the value for the speed of light (c) of approximately 3 x 10⁸ meters per second, the mass lost is:

Δm = (3.8 x 10²⁶ J) / (3 x 10⁸ m/s)² ≈ 4.22 x 10⁹ kg

To calculate the percentage, we divide the mass lost by the Sun's total mass and multiply by 100:

Percentage = (4.22 x 10⁹ kg / 1.989 x 10³⁰ kg) x 100 ≈ 4.26 x 10⁻⁹%

Therefore, approximately 4.26 x 10⁻⁹% of the Sun's total mass is lost annually due to fusion converting mass into energy.

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calculate the t statistic. y= 19,525 sy =24,782 my =17,726 oy = ? n= 372

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To calculate the t statistic, we need to first determine the standard error of the mean (SEM) and then divide the difference between the sample mean and the population mean by the SEM.

t = (y - my) / (sy / sqrt(n))

where y is the sample mean, sy is the sample standard deviation, my is the population mean, and n is the sample size.


In this case, we are given the sample mean (y = 19,525), the sample standard deviation (sy = 24,782), the population mean (my = 17,726), and the sample size (n = 372).

To calculate the SEM, we use the formula:

SEM = sy / sqrt(n)

Plugging in the values we get:

SEM = 24,782 / sqrt(372) = 1283.57

Now we can calculate the t statistic:

t = (19,525 - 17,726) / 1283.57 = 1.40

Therefore, the t statistic is 1.40.

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air at 101 kpa and 360 k flows at 15 m/s over a flat plate maintained at 300 k assume that the transition reynolds number is 5

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Air at a pressure of 101 kPa and a temperature of 360 K flows at a velocity of 15 m/s over a flat plate maintained at a temperature of 300 K. It is assumed that the transition Reynolds number is 5.

The transition Reynolds number is a dimensionless parameter that determines the flow regime over a surface. It is defined as the ratio of inertial forces to viscous forces and is used to distinguish between laminar and turbulent flow. In this case, the given transition Reynolds number is 5.

When the air flows over the flat plate, the flow regime will depend on the value of the Reynolds number. If the Reynolds number is below the transition value, the flow will be laminar, characterized by smooth and orderly layers of air. If the Reynolds number exceeds the transition value, the flow becomes turbulent, with chaotic and irregular motion.

The exact behavior of the flow, whether it is laminar or turbulent, will also depend on other factors such as surface roughness, boundary layer thickness, and the nature of the flow itself. However, based on the given information, we can infer that the flow is expected to be in the laminar regime due to the low transition Reynolds number of 5.

In summary, the given conditions of air pressure, temperature, velocity, and transition Reynolds number suggest that the flow over the flat plate is likely to be laminar.

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the presence of what type of object accounts for the very fast orbiting of stars and gas about the center of the milky way?

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The Milky Way's center's extremely quick circling of stars and plasma is explained by the existence of a supermassive black hole.

Sagittarius A* (Sgr A*), a supermassive black hole in the center of the galaxy, has been confirmed through astronomical observations and research. The estimated mass of this black hole is millions of times more than the mass of the Sun. The surrounding matter is significantly impacted by its strong gravitational pull, which causes stars and gas to orbit it quickly. These quick orbital velocities are a result of the supermassive black hole's powerful gravitational pull, which controls the dynamics of objects close to the galactic center.

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Two asteroids head straight for Earth from the same direction. Their speeds relative to Earth are 0.81c for asteroid 1 and 0.59 for asteroid 2.Find the speed of asteroid 1 relative to asteroid 2.Wouldn't it be v=.22?

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Answer:No, the calculation you provided is incorrect. To find the relative speed of asteroid 1 with respect to asteroid 2, we need to use the relativistic velocity addition formula:

v = (v1 - v2) / (1 - v1*v2/c^2)

where v1 is the velocity of asteroid 1 relative to Earth, v2 is the velocity of asteroid 2 relative to Earth, and c is the speed of light.

Substituting the given values, we get:

v = (0.81c - 0.59c) / (1 - 0.81c * 0.59c / c^2)

v = 0.22c / (1 - 0.48)

v = 0.42c

Therefore, the speed of asteroid 1 relative to asteroid 2 is 0.42 times the speed of light (c).

Explanation:

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