what’s the equation for g(x)?

Answer:

1) c. 1,208 ft

2) a. 20 squares

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

1 second

Step-by-step explanation:

The number of seconds for the ball to reach the maximum height is t = 1 s

The function rule is the relationship between the input or domain and the output or range. A relation is a function if and only if there exists one value in the range for every domain value.

A function is a relation from a set of inputs to a set of possible outputs where each input is related to exactly one output.

Given data ,

Let the function be represented as A

Now , the value of A is

f ( x ) = -16t² + 32t + 128

The function h(t) gives the height of the ball at time t. The maximum height occurs at the vertex of the parabolic path, which is given by the formula:

t = -b / (2a)

where a = -16 and b = 32 are the coefficients of the quadratic term and the linear term, respectively.

Substituting these values into the formula, we get:

t = -32 / (2(-16)) = 1

Therefore, the ball reaches its maximum height after 1 second

Hence , the function is solved

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Answer:

1. C

2. A

3. C

4. A

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

its the 3 one

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

See below

Step-by-step explanation:

A. [tex] \angle 4 \: and \angle 6[/tex] - - - (same side interior angles)

B. [tex] \angle 5 \: and \angle 8[/tex] - - - (vertical angles)

C. [tex] \angle 2 \: and \angle 6[/tex] - - - (corresponding angles)

D. [tex] \angle 4 \: and \angle 5[/tex] - - - (alternate interior angles)

Answer:

The side on triangle PQR that corresponds to side LN in triangle MNL is side QR.

Step-by-step explanation:

Triangle PQR is a dilated version of triangle LMN, specifically a dilation of 2, since LN = 12, the corresponding side to it on triangle PQR is side QR because it is twice as big as side LN, which is the dilation value for converting triangle LMN to triangle PQR.

The side of triangle PQR corresponds to side LN in triangle MNL will be QR.

Similar triangle are those which have two pairs of interior corresponding angles are equal or two pairs of corresponding sides are in proportion.

We have,

Two triangles as shown in the given figure,

Now,

Using triangle similarity rule,

i.e.

Sides are in equal proportion,

i.e.

[tex]\frac{LM}{PR} =\frac{MN}{PQ} =\frac{LN}{QR}[/tex]

So,

Put values of sides ,

[tex]\frac{14}{28} =\frac{10}{20} =\frac{12}{24}[/tex]

i.e.

[tex]\frac{1}{2} =\frac{1}{2} =\frac{1}{2}[/tex]

So,

All sides in proportion according to the question,

Now,

The side which is in proportion to side LN is QR.

Hence, we can say that the side of triangle PQR corresponds to side LN in triangle MNL will be QR.

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Answer:

y = 12x + 6

Step-by-step explanation:

y-intercept (c)= 6

m= 12

therefore, y=mx+c

y=12x + 6

Answer:

A,d,e not sur tho

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

[tex]r^{2}+6r+9=(r+3)^{2} \\m^{2}-10m+25=(m-5)^{2}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

Only !

Answer:

4x^2(3+4x)

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

should i do all the questions?

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

2.5*18 = 45

So, the answer would be

Yes, this is in the range between 35 psi and 60 psi.

I'm a Clay student, are you too? :) Good luck!!

Answer:

2x - 4 = 16

Step-by-step explanation:

'the difference' shows that its subtraction so u have to put a - in the equation

'double' means 2 and since you dont know the value of 'a number' you replace it with a variable like x. combine them and you get 2x

so far it should look like 2x -

4 is equal to 4 so just put a 4 in front of the subtraction sign

it'll look like 2x - 4 now

'is 16' basically means is equal to 16 so now ur equation should look like:

2x - 4 = 16

if you wanted to solve that u could add 4 to both sides then divide both sides by 2 and get x = 10

Answer:

x = 10

Step-by-step explanation:

2x - 4 = 16

2x = 20

x = 10

Hope that helps!

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

area of a triangular face = 0.5×4×3 = 6 square units

lateral area = area of 4 triangular faces = 4×6 = 24 square units

base area = 4² = 16 square units

total surface area = lateral area + base area = 24+16 = 40 square units

Answer:

40

Step-by-step explanation:

40

Answer:

216..................

Answer:

the answer is tess

Step-by-step explanation:i did it

The person that will likely finish first is: Tess.

Factor comparison is a systematic and scientific way of job appraisal that assesses jobs based on a number of characteristics rather than the job as a whole. The goal of factor comparison is to assign monetary worth to the various components of each employment role.

First, Tess and Alice swam laps for the same amount of time, but Tess finished more laps.

Second, they are swimming the same number of laps at a swim meet.

As, Tess finished more laps then Alice so he is always ahead of Alice.

In second time again Tess will finish more laps comparison to Alice.

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Answer:

θ=2πn1  + arcsin(24/25), n1  ∈ Z or θ=2πn2 +π−arcsin(24/25) , n2  ∈ Z

Step-by-step explanation:

Hope this helps

Step-by-step explanation:

sin A = 24 / 25

as we know that :

sin ² A + cos ²A = 1

cos ²A = 1 - sin²A

cos ²A = 1 - ( 24/25) ²

cos² A = 1 - 576 / 625

cos ²A =. 625 - 576 / 625

cos ² A. =. 49 / 625

cos A =. √ 49/ 625

cos A = 7 / 25

plz mark my answer as brainlist plzzz .

I hope you will find it useful .

plz it took a really great effort .

Answer:

cool how much he got

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

B

Step-by-step explanation:

48-19=29x2=58 so yeah thats how you do dat

Answer:

Mrs Wilson put 1/12 of the box of candy in each goodie bag

Step-by-step explanation:

5/6 is kinda hard to divide into 10 pieces left like it is, so we turn 5/6 into 10/12 (they're both the same)

Then from here, it's easy

10/12 and 10 goodie bags

So 1/12 goes into each one

Answer:

30/120 *100

Step-by-step explanation:

which is 25 percent

Answer:

C. 4/0

Step-by-step explanation:

You can't divide 4 by 0.

A. you would have gotten -0.5

B. you would have gotten 0

D. you would have gotten 0

Hope this help!! :)

Answer:

C. [tex]\frac{4}{0}[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

you cannot divide by zero, therefore option C is the correct choice because [tex]\frac{4}{0}[/tex] means 4 ÷ 0.

if 0 was the numerator, like in [tex]\frac{0}{4}[/tex] or 0 ÷ 4, the answer would be 0 because 0 divided by 4 is 0. this can be kind of confusing at times, but just remember that as long as 0 is the denominator in a fraction (meaning the 0 is under the fraction bar), the answer will always come out as undefined because you can't divide by 0.

i hope this helps! have a great day <3

Answer:

yurrrrr

Step-by-step explanation:

ion know what to put...

Answer:

yurrrrrrrrrrrrrrrr bet

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

129

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

129

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: cot

Step-by-step explanation: cos

(

x

)

1

sin

(

x

)

cos

(

x

)

1

sin

(

x

)

Combine

cos

(

x

)

cos

(

x

)

and

1

sin

(

x

)

1

sin

(

x

)

.

cos

(

x

)

sin

(

x

)

cos

(

x

)

sin

(

x

)

Convert from

cos

(

x

)

sin

(

x

)

cos

(

x

)

sin

(

x

)

to

cot

(

x

)

cot

(

x

)

.

cot

(

x

)

Answer:

a

Step-by-step explanation:

a measuring tape is more precise than measuring by whatever the second method is.